US Patent: does sale (of the doc) constitute publishing? and preclude patenting?
qr.ae/pvczYd
1 comments
If you sold it, it was your idea. That means if the buyer wants to patent it, you need to be cited as the origin. As far as I know, private discussion is not publication (which presumes widespread public dissemination). In addition, absent the public discussion/revelation anyone at all can think of this idea and patent it. Recent changes have muddied this with first to patent = the win.
Many companies intentionally publish inventive details to (try to??) place them in the public domain as a troll blocking mechanism.
Thread is asking whether inventorself can still patent it after selling it. (And just assume no one else has invented the same thing.)
And pardon the bad use of wording---I mean selling "reads" (a copy) or leasing rights, not selling ownership of the idea. Two ~99% overlapping questions are <qr.ae/pvc6JS >, and <qr.ae/pvc3Mj >.
And pardon the bad use of wording---I mean selling "reads" (a copy) or leasing rights, not selling ownership of the idea. Two ~99% overlapping questions are <qr.ae/pvc6JS >, and <qr.ae/pvc3Mj >.
Public sale and application reveal a prior art = Yep.
https://www.dorsey.com/newsresources/publications/client-ale...
https://www.dorsey.com/newsresources/publications/client-ale...
Interesting link. I took it and put it to SE and it appears to be <No>.
[0]: https://patents.stackexchange.com/q/25004/8289
[0]: https://patents.stackexchange.com/q/25004/8289